[Jun 10, 2026] Fully Updated Check Point Certified Security Expert (156-315.81) Certification Sample Questions
Latest CheckPoint 156-315.81 Real Exam Dumps PDF
CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam is targeted towards experienced security professionals with significant practical knowledge of Check Point technologies. The credentials offered by the exam are valuable for those seeking to advance their career in the security domain. 156-315.81 exam covers a wide range of topics, including security administration, VPN management, security policies, and network address translation, among others.
NEW QUESTION # 122
What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?
- A. fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016
- B. fw sam -I dport 22
- C. fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22
- D. fwaccel dos config set dport ssh
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command 'fw sam -I dport 22' will delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway by adding a temporary rule to the Security Policy that blocks traffic with destination port 22. The other commands are not valid or do not have the same effect. Reference: Check Point R81 Command Line Interface Reference Guide, page 101.
NEW QUESTION # 123
By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The default port for the Gaia WebUI Portal is HTTPS 443. This is the standard port for secure web communication over SSL/TLS. Changing the port may cause inconsistency with the settings on the SmartConsole and is not recommended unless necessary. To change the port, you can use the CLISH command set web ssl-port <port number> and save the configuration. References: 13
NEW QUESTION # 124
From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:
- A. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
- B. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
- C. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
- D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
Answer: D
Explanation:
From SecureXL perspective, the three paths of traffic flow are Firewall Path, Accelerated Path, and Medium Path. Firewall Path is the path that handles packets that are not processed by SecureXL and are sent to the Firewall kernel for inspection. Accelerated Path is the path that handles packets that are processed by SecureXL and bypass the Firewall kernel. Medium Path is the path that handles packets that are partially processed by SecureXL and partially by the Firewall kernel1. References: Check Point R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 125
How can you switch the active log file?
- A. Run fw logswitch on the Management Server
- B. Run fwm logswitch on the Management Server
- C. Run fw logswitch on the gateway
- D. Run fwm logswitch on the gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can switch the active log file by running fw logswitch on the Management Server1. This command closes the current log file and creates a new one2. It is useful for archiving or backing up log files, or for creating a new log file for a specific time period2. You can also schedule the log switch to occur automatically at a regular interval, such as daily, weekly, or monthly2. To run this command, you need to access the Management Server in expert mode and run fw logswitch1. You can also use the SmartView Tracker to switch the active log file from the GUI. To do this, go to the Network & Endpoint tab, click on the File menu, and select Switch Active File...3.
NEW QUESTION # 126
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.20 code?
- A. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API
- B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
- C. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
- D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
Answer: B
Explanation:
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.20 code?
The types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.20 code are:
Management API: This API allows you to automate and orchestrate various management tasks, such as creating and modifying objects, installing policies, generating reports, etc. The Management API can be accessed via CLI, Web Services, or GUI clients.
Threat Prevention API: This API allows you to interact with the Threat Prevention software blades, such as Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, Threat Emulation, etc. The Threat Prevention API can be used to query and update indicators, upload files for emulation, retrieve verdicts and reports, etc.
Identity Awareness Web Services API: This API allows you to integrate external identity sources with the Identity Awareness software blade, which provides identity-based access control for network traffic. The Identity Awareness Web Services API can be used to send identity and session information to the Security Gateway, query identity information from the Security Gateway, etc.
OPSEC SDK API: This API allows you to develop custom applications that can communicate with Check Point products using the OPSEC protocol. The OPSEC SDK API supports various OPSEC services, such as LEA, CPMI, SAM, ELA, UFP, etc. Reference: R81 Management API Reference Guide, page 7; [R81 Threat Prevention API Reference Guide], page 7; [R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide], page 105; [OPSEC SDK R81 Documentation Package].
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?
- A. fwd
- B. cpd
- C. fwm
- D. cpwd
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Firewall Management (fwm) is available on any management product, including Multi-Domain and on products that requite direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent, It provides the following:
- GUI Client communication
- Database manipulation
- Policy Compilation
- Management HA sync
NEW QUESTION # 128
What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?
- A. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction
- B. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
- C. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
- D. IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway are IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction. These components provide comprehensive protection against various types of cyber threats, such as network attacks, malware, ransomware, phishing, zero-day exploits, data leakage, and more. IPS is a network security component that detects and prevents malicious traffic based on signatures, behavioral patterns, and anomaly detection. Anti-Bot is a network security component that detects and blocks botnet communications and command-and-control servers.
Anti-Virus is a network security component that scans files for known viruses, worms, and trojans. Threat Emulation is a network security component that emulates files in a sandbox environment to detect unknown malware and prevent zero-day attacks. Threat Extraction is a network security component that removes malicious content from files and delivers clean files to users. References: [Check Point R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide], page 9-10
NEW QUESTION # 129
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?
- A. This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
- B. This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.
- C. This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.
- D. Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Threat Extraction is a technology that removes potentially malicious features that are known to be risky from files (macros, embedded objects and more), rather than determining their maliciousness. By cleaning the file before it enters the organization, Threat Extraction preemptively prevents both known and unknown threats, providing better protection against zero-day attacks1. Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast2. The other options are either incorrect or irrelevant to the mechanism behind Threat Extraction. References: Threat Extraction (CDR) - Check Point Software, Check Point Document Threat Extraction Technology
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which application should you use to install a contract file?
- A. SmartView Monitor
- B. WebUI
- C. SmartProvisioning
- D. SmartUpdate
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the Check Point website, SmartUpdate is the application that should be used to install a contract file. A contract file contains information about the licenses and services that are purchased from Check Point. SmartUpdate can also be used to install software packages and patches on Security Gateways and Management Servers. The other applications are either not relevant or not capable of installing a contract file. Reference: SmartUpdate
NEW QUESTION # 131
What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?
- A. Cloud. OpenServer and Vmware
- B. Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid
- C. Cloud, Appliance and Private
- D. Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 132
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?
- A. Remote Access and RADIUS
- B. RADIUS
- C. AD Query
- D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
NEW QUESTION # 133
SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:
- A. as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only
- B. detect only
- C. inline/prevent or detect
- D. using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 134
Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .
- A. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
- B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
- C. Sent to the Security Administrator.
- D. Stored on the Security Management Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is stored on the Certificate Revocation List (CRL). The CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) and are no longer valid for Secure Internal Communication (SIC). The CRL is signed by the ICA and issued to all the managed Security Gateways the next time a SIC connection is made12. The CRL helps to prevent unauthorized access to the Security Management Server by revoked Security Gateways.
NEW QUESTION # 135
You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
- A. save configuration <filename>
- B. show config -f <filename>
- C. write mem <filename>
- D. save config -o <filename>
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct command to store the GAIA configuration in a file is save configuration <filename>1. This will create a file with the current system level configuration in the home directory of the current user1. The other commands are incorrect because they either do not exist or do not save the configuration to a file.
References: 1: Backing up Gaia system level
configuration(https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=
NEW QUESTION # 136
What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?
- A. Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
- B. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
- C. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect
- D. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud
Answer: D
Explanation:
The three components for Check Point Capsule are Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, and Capsule Cloud. Capsule Workspace is a secure container app that allows users to access corporate data and applications from their mobile devices. Capsule Docs is a solution that protects documents with encryption and granular access control. Capsule Cloud is a cloud-based security service that enforces security policies on devices that are outside the corporate network. Reference: Check Point Capsule
NEW QUESTION # 137
How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?
- A. up to 5 minutes
- B. within seconds cleaned file will be provided
- C. up to 3 minutes
- D. up to 1 minutes
Answer: C
Explanation:
How long may verification of one file take for SandBlast Threat Emulation? Verification of one file may take up to 3 minutes for SandBlast Threat Emulation. SandBlast Threat Emulation is a software blade that provides protection against malicious files by emulating them in a virtual sandbox and analyzing their behavior. The emulation time depends on various factors, such as file size, file type, emulation mode, etc. The default emulation time limit is 180 seconds, but it can be changed in the Threat Prevention policy settings. Reference: [R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide], page 39.
NEW QUESTION # 138
Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n)
_____________ Server.
- A. LDAP
- B. SMTP
- C. NT domain
- D. SecurID
Answer: A
Explanation:
The User Directory Software Blade allows you to create user definitions on an LDAP server, such as Active Directory, and use them in your security policy. You can also integrate with other user authentication methods, such as SecurID, RADIUS, or TACACS+, but you cannot create user definitions on those servers.
The references are:
* Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 (CCSE) Core Training, slide 13
* Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide, page 139
* Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, page 9
NEW QUESTION # 139
Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?
- A. cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast
- B. cphaprob set_ccp multicast
- C. cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast
- D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The cphaconf set_ccp multicast command is used to set the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) to Multicast mode.
This mode allows cluster members to communicate with each other using multicast packets. The other commands are either incorrect or set the CCP to Broadcast mode. References: ClusterXL Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 140
How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?
- A. By dropping traffic from websites identified through ThreatCloud Verification and URL Caching
- B. By dropping traffic that is not proven to be from clean websites in the URL Filtering blade
- C. By matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website
- D. By allowing traffic from websites that are known to run Antivirus Software on servers regularly
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy blocks traffic from infected websites by matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website. ThreatCloud is a collaborative network that collects and analyzes threat data from millions of sources worldwide. It assigns a reputation score to each website based on its malicious activity and behavior. If a website has a low reputation score, it is considered infected and blocked by the Anti-Virus blade. References: Training & Certification | Check Point Software, CCSE section
NEW QUESTION # 141
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:
- A. fw ctl multik set_mode 9
- B. fw ctl multik set_mode 1
- C. fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable
- D. fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Dynamic Dispatcher is a feature that optimizes the performance of Security Gateways with multiple CPU cores by dynamically allocating traffic to different cores based on their load and priority. Firewall Priority Queues is a feature that prioritizes traffic based on its type and importance by assigning it to different queues with different weights and limits. To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, you need to run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:
This command sets the multi-core mode to 9, which means that Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled with Firewall Priority Queues. The other commands are not valid or do not enable both features. References: R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 142
What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
- A. cp_conf get_stat cpsemd
- B. cpstat cpsead
- C. fw ctl get int cpsead_stat
- D. fw ctl stat cpsemd
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is responsible for analyzing the log entries and identifying events from them. It runs on the Log Server machine or on a dedicated machine1. To check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit, you can use the command cpstat cpsead on the machine where it is installed. This command will show you information such as the number of logs processed, the number of events generated, the CPU and memory usage, and the status of the connection to the SmartEvent Server23.
References: SmartEvent Administration Guide R76, SmartEvent Administration Guide R75, SmartEvent Performance Tuning Guide
NEW QUESTION # 143
Alice knows about the Check Point Management HA installation from Bob and needs to know which Check Point Security Management Server is currently capable of issuing and managing certificate. Alice uses the Check Point command "cpconfig'' to run the Check Point Security Management Server configuration tool on both Check Point Management HA instances "Primary & Secondary" Which configuration option does she need to look for:
- A. Random Pool
- B. Certificate's Fingerprint
- C. Certificate Authority
- D. CA Authority
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Certificate Authority (CA) is a service that issues and manages digital certificates for secure communication between Check Point components. CA can be installed on a Security Management Server or on a dedicated server. CA can be configured as primary or secondary in a High Availability cluster. The cpconfig command is used to run the Check Point Configuration Tool on Gaia OS, which allows users to configure various settings for Check Point products. One of the configuration options is Certificate Authority, which shows if CA is installed on the server and if it is primary or secondary5. Therefore, Alice needs to look for this option to check the CA status.
References: 5: cpconfig
NEW QUESTION # 144
What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?
- A. Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket
- B. Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates
- C. PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP
- D. PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_RemoteAccessVPN_AdminGuide/T
NEW QUESTION # 145
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CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam is a challenging and comprehensive certification exam that validates the skills and knowledge of Check Point Security Experts. Passing 156-315.81 exam demonstrates a candidate's expertise in implementing, managing, and troubleshooting Check Point Security solutions, making them a valuable asset to any organization.
The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam, also known as CheckPoint 156-315.81, is designed to test the knowledge and skills of IT professionals in the field of network security. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification is ideal for individuals who want to demonstrate their expertise in deploying, managing, and troubleshooting Check Point Security solutions. 156-315.81 exam is based on the latest Check Point R81 software release, which includes advanced features such as unified policy management, cloud-based security, and threat intelligence.
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