Medical Tests AAPC-CPC Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps
100% Free AAPC-CPC Daily Practice Exam With 152 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 71
A patient undergoes surgery with anesthesia and is arousable with painful stimulation. What is the level of sedation the patient MOST likely received?
- A. Moderate sedation
- B. Deep sedation
- C. Minimal sedation
- D. General anesthesia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Minimal, moderate, and deep sedation all allow the patient to undergo a procedure without pain and without being completely unconscious. If a patient receives minimal sedation, they are responsive after receiving verbal stimulation. Moderate sedation causes a patient to respond only after tactile stimulation. General anesthesia causes the patient to be completely unarousable, even with painful stimulation.
NEW QUESTION # 72
If all the following statements were documented by the anesthesiologist in one record, which would be chosen as the start time for anesthesia services?
- A. Medical history and vital signs for the patient are obtained prior to the surgery.
- B. Propofol is administered to the patient intravenously.
- C. Request for services is received for an operation that begins in 1 hour.
- D. A pulse oximeter is attached to the patient,s finger while in the operating room.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Anesthesia time begins when the provider begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia services. This usually will take place in the operating room or an equivalent area. Although answer B would not be incorrect as a chosen starting point, answer C is more accurate according to the anesthesia time definition. Preoperative evaluations of the patient, such as a history intake, cannot be counted as anesthesia time.
NEW QUESTION # 73
If a physician administers cyclophosphamide over 154 minutes, irinotecan over 72 minutes, and panitumumab over 15 minutes intravenously to a patient with pancreatic cancer, how should this be reported?
- A. 96413, 96413-59x2, 96415, 96417
- B. 94613, 96415x2, 96417x2
- C. 96413, 96415x3, 96417x2
- D. 96413, 96413-59, 9641512, 96417
Answer: C
Explanation:
Unless a separate IV site is established for a secondary or tertiary administration, CPT
96413 should be reported only once to represent the initial drug infusion. In this case, it is the cyclophosphamide. The remaining 94 minutes are reported with Ovo units of add-on CPT 96415, which may be reported ifthe time spent beyond the first hour is between 31 and 60 minutes. CPT
96417 is reported only once per subsequent infusion of a different drug up to the first hour.
Consequently, the 72 minutes of irinotecan is reported with a single unit of CPT 96417, and the 15 minutes of panitumumab is also reported with one unit ofthat same CPT code.
NEW QUESTION # 74
What is NOT a function of the kidneys?
- A. Filter blood
- B. Remove waste
- C. Regulate blood pressure
- D. Propel urine
Answer: D
Explanation:
The role ofthe kidneys is to filter blood before it is transported back to the heart, remove waste materials from food and medication, and regulate blood pressure by excreting excess sodium.
The ureters propel urine from the kidneys into the bladder.
NEW QUESTION # 75
If a cardiologist bills an electrocardiogram (93010) in the emergency department and then follows up with the patient a week later for arteriosclerosis, he should bill an established patient E/M.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is false. According to CPT, a new patient is one who has "not received professional services from the physician." In lieu of this, because the cardiologist only interpreted an electrocardiogram and did not actually provide care to the patient, a new patient E/M service should be billed.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A physician performs an esophagogastroduodenoscopy on a patient who has GERD. A single tissue sample is obtained from the upper gastrointestinal tract using biopsy forceps. A reflux test was also done and a bravo capsule temporarily attached to the esophageal wall to monitor pH levels. What procedures should the physician report?
- A. 43239, 91035
- B. 43235, 91035
- C. 43239, 91034
- D. 43235, 91034
Answer: A
Explanation:
To report an esophagogastroduodenoscopy, see CPT code range 43233-43259. In this scenario, the procedure is not considered diagnostic (43235) because the physician is stating the patient has GERD. Additionally, the tissue sample was obtained by means of biopsy forceps and not by brushing or washing. The secondary procedure is a reflux test and an esophageal pH test by means of a bravo capsule, which evaluates the level of acid refluxing into the esophagus. Although CPT 91035 doesn't specifically state a capsule in the description of the code, it would fall under a
"mucosal attached" placement. A nasal catheter was not used, so reporting CPT 91034 would be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 77
What is the main role of the tonsils?
- A. Trigger the formation of antibodies
- B. Filter lymph and form lymphocytes
- C. Secrete antibodies to destroy ingested microbes
- D. Remove bacteria that enter the body through the nose and/or mouth
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary role of the tonsils is to remove bacteria that enter though the oral and nasal cavity. Antigens are molecules located on the surface of pathogens and trigger the formation of antibodies. Lymph nodes filter lymph and form lymphocytes. B cells secrete antibodies that assist in destroying bacterium causing disease.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A female patient presents to her obstetrical office 32 -weeks pregnant for a bi-weekly ultrasound. Code the following technician's report:
Fetal views obtained via transabdominal ultrasound as follows:
BPD: 32 mm
Femur Length: 63 mm
Head Circumference: 288 mm
Abdominal Circumference: 270 mm
BPP 8/8
NST from 11:15 to 12:17, showing 160 BPM and positive movement activity Doppler shows adequate systolic and diastolic flow velocities of the fetal umbilical artery.
- A. 76816, 76818, 76820
- B. 76815, 78819, 76820
- C. 76815-TC, 76819-TC, 76820-TC
- D. 76816-TC, 76816-TC, 76820-TC
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPT 76815 is a limited ultrasound, in which only the fetal heartbeat, position, placental location, and/or volume of amniotic fluid are evaluated. In this scenario, much more was done than a limited study. The ultrasound technician documented age-appropriate fetal measurements, which are supported by CPT 76816. A biophysical profile (BPP) was also done, which monitors the fetus's movements, tone, and breathing as well as evaluates the volume of amniotic fluid. Each of these elements counts as 2 units of grading to evaluate the general well-being ofthe fetus. The desired score of a BPP is 8/8. Because a fetal nonstress test (NST) was completed in conjunction with a BPP, report CPT 76818 instead of CPT 76819. Modifier TC is used to reflect that only a technical component of the procedure was completed. However, because the patient received these services in an obstetrical office that employs the physicians providing prenatal care and owns the ultrasound equipment the code should be submitted without modifiers TC or 26 to receive 100% reimbursement.
NEW QUESTION # 79
If in the assessment, the provider reports diabetes and dermatitis due to oils, which diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
- A. Ell.69, L24.1
- B. None of the above-query the provider to clarify which type of diabetes the patient has
- C. Ell.9, L24.1
- D. Ell.620
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the documentation does not specify which type of diabetes is present, always default to type II. Although there is a causal relationship assumed between diabetes and dermatitis, the documentation reflects that the dermatitis is due to oils, not diabetes. Because the manifestation of dermatitis is not associated with the diabetes, the correct code would be Ell.9: diabetes type II without complications.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A 72 -year-old patient is admitted due to atrial fibrillation. A comprehensive electrophysiology study is completed with fluoroscopic guidance, followed by a cardiac catheter ablation during the same procedure. The procedure took 22 minutes, and the patient was moderately sedated. Which CPT codes should the cardiologist report?
- A. 93650, 93619-26-59, 77001, 99152, 99153
- B. 93650, 93619-26-59, 99152
- C. 93656, 99152
- D. 93656, 77001, 99152, 99153
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is common practice to perform both an electrophysiology (EP) study and a cardiac ablation procedure in the same session. These procedures have been bundled in the CPC manual, and the coding of such is dependent on the type of arrhythmia being treated. The EP study and cardiac ablation are not to be reported separately. In this scenario, the patient has atrial fibrillation, which is reported with CPT 93656. When fluoroscopy is used for guidance rather than for diagnostic imaging, it is usually not reported separately from the primary procedure. Moderate sedation can be reported when used, and selection is based on time. CPT 99152 and 99153 are counted in 15-minute intervals. lvVhen the procedure does not fall on a 15-minute interval, it must at least meet the halfway point of the time stated to be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A 15-year-old male patient is seen in the emergency department due to a dislocated left elbow, caused by a fall from his skateboard. The physician performs a comprehensive physical evaluation to check for other injuries before manually realigning the dislocation and placing a splint from the shoulder to wrist. The patient is informed to follow up in 4 weeks. Which CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should the emergency department report?
- A. 24600-LT, S53.105A. VOO.131A
- B. 24600-LT, 29105, S53.195AVOO.131A
- C. 99283, 24600-LT, VOO.131A
- D. 99282-57, 24600-LT, S53.105A VOO.131A
Answer: D
Explanation:
An E/M is always billed when a patient is seen in the emergency department because it is unscheduled and urgent. In this case, the documentation encompasses a straightforward level of decision-making (one acute, uncomplicated injury, minimal or no data reviewed, superficial dressings that result in minimal risk or morbidity of the patient), which lead the coder to 99282.
Modifier 57 is appended to indicate that the decision for surgery was made just prior to the procedure and is not bundled. CPT coding crosswalk confirms that a closed treatment of a dislocated elbow is CPT code 24600. Application ofa splint is represented by CPT code 29105 but is not applicable when performed with a surgery to correct the dislocation. ICD-IO-CM crosswalk for dislocation of left elbow is S53.105A.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A patient receives a positron emission technology (PET) scan at rest, where a metabolic evaluation study, including ventricular wall motion was performed using PET imaging. A computed tomography (CT) was performed at the same time. What CPT code(s) should the radiologist report?
- A. 78430, 76497-59
- B. 78429, 76497-59
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
PET scans are reported using CPT codes 78429-78434. The documentation specifies that a metabolic study was performed versus a perfusion study, thus eliminating answers B and D. A CT scan is included in the description of CPT 78429, thus making it unable to be separately reportable.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Modifier 50 is not an appropriate modifier to append on CPT code 52000.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is true. In general, modifier 50 is not appended on cystourethroscopies because human anatomy has only one bladder. However, if the descriptor includes "with ureteral catherization," the procedure can be performed tvvice and billed once with modifier 50 because there are two ureters. CPT 52000 does not include this descriptor.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A 92-year old female with Medicare part A coverage receives ongoing hospice care due to dementi a. She goes to a physician's office to receive closed treatment of a hip dislocation following a fall. No anesthesia was used. How should the provider submit this claim?
- A. 27250, 99213-25, S73.003A
- B. 27250-GW, 99202-25, S73.003A W19XXYuA
- C. 27250-GW, S73.003A, W19XXXA
- D. 27250, S73.003A, W19XXXA
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a patient is receiving hospice care, Medicare will not reimburse the physician for services rendered that are unrelated to the terminal illness unless submitted with modifier GW. In Answers C and D, a separate, identifiable E/M is not to be billed because the procedure is considered minor (1- to 10-day global period) and includes an inherent E/M component.
NEW QUESTION # 85
An 88-year-old patient with Medicare comes in for her yearly flu shot. After receiving a 0.5 mL single shot dose of preservative-free Alfuria intramuscularly, the provider observes the patient for 15 minutes to monitor any adverse reactions. How should the provider code for this encounter?
- A. 99211-25, 90471, 90656, Z23, Z03.89
- B. 90471, 90656, Z23
- C. G0008, 90656, Z23
- D. 96372, 90686 Z23
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient has Medicare insurance and therefore requires the use of an HCPC code (G0008) in place of a CPT intramuscular injection code. The use of an E/M code in answer B is not warranted because the provider only administered services related to the vaccination. The appropriate diagnosis code for any vaccination would be Z23.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which is NOT a violation of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
- A. An office does not perform a risk assessment of electronic health information.
- B. A hospital with a multilayered cybersecurity defense experiences a data breach by acybercriminal.
- C. An employee drops off patient records on a physician,s porch.
- D. An encrypted laptop is stolen from a physician,s vehicle.
Answer: B
Explanation:
HIPAA is in place to reduce the level of risk associated with a potential violation and/or breach. In answer C, even though a breach has occurred, the hospital has appropriate preventative measures in place and is not in violation of HIPAA. Leaving a laptop in an unattended vehicle or medical records outside is high-risk behavior that gives opportunity for an unauthorized person to access protected health information (PHI) and/or electronic protected health. In answer D, a medical practice is required to perform a risk analysis to PHI and/or ePHI and recti$ any failures within a timely manner.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A surgeon performs a posterior fusion on the L2-L5 of the spine due to degenerative disc disease. CPT and ICD-IOOI code(s) should be reported?
- A. 22533, M51.37
- B. 22612, 22614x2, MSI.36
- C. 22800, M51.37
- D. 22612, 22614x 3, M51.36
Answer: B
Explanation:
The code for a joint fusion using a posterior approach is 22612. In this scenario, there are three fusion levels: L2-L3, L3-L4, and L4-L5. Following the primary code, 22614 would be billed tv;ice and with no modifier because it is an add-on code. ICD-IO-CM code M51.37 is for degenerative discs in the lumbosacral region; however, L2-L5 is considered the lumbar region.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Consultation codes 99242-99245 have been deemed as not medically necessary and are no longer reimbursed by Medicare. This decision would fall under which term?
- A. Local Coding Determination
- B. National Coding Determination
- C. Carrier Coding Determination
- D. Governed Coding Determination
Answer: B
Explanation:
Decisions regarding coverage are made through evidence-based processes and public opinion. National Coding Determination (NCD) is specific to Medicare coverage nationwide, whereas Local Coding Determination (LDC) is contractor and commercial specific. Carrier and Governed Coding Determinations do not exist.
NEW QUESTION # 89
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